A Query with Reference to Dr Jordan Cooper and His Scholasticism

Why does Dr Jordan Cooper have the following he does? He continues to insist that Protestant orthodoxy (Lutheran or Reformed), which developed in the 16th and 17th C in Western Europe, represents the only real way to be a faithful *orthodox* Christian. As such he devotes much of his time proclaiming to the world that orthodoxy is the Godsend the Protestant Church of Jesus Christ needs. But what if said orthodoxy was only orthodoxy for merely a sector of even the 16th and 17th C Protestant churches? What if Cooper’s orthodoxy isn’t actually catholic in the sense that it is genuinely representative of an ecumenical and even conciliar way to think the triune God in Jesus Christ? What if said orthodoxy was regional and time-stamped, based on the intellectual capacities and resources available to the Church in that region then? This seems to be the case. Does Aristotelian metaphysics, which Cooper’s orthodoxy is based upon, actually and most meaningfully deal with what the Christian Church is faced with today in the 21st C? Is God capable, is He capacious enough to continue to speak through the categories the Church has been provided with in the modern period, even the postmodern? Why is God’s voice delimited by 16th and 17th C Europe; why is God unable to speak orthodoxly in the categories of today; is Aristotle the only means of grace for the world? Indeed, did God “only” speak through Aristotle even back then? Weren’t there other ecclesial and ideational developments therein that God spoke faithfully to His people through? Weren’t there other orthodoxies, even Reformed and Lutheran, in the 16th and 17th C afoot (there were!) I have no problem constructively engaging with the scholastics of Reformed and Lutheran orientation from back then. But I am a 21st C Christian, and I have an array of categories to think and proclaim God through that can be just as orthodox, and even more so IMO, than Aristotle was back then. Cooper’s thesis just does not follow in any meaningful sense, theologically. Deus dixit, ‘God has spoken,’ and continues to speak to His Church through the living and risen voice of Jesus Christ. He is not delimited by 16th and 17th C categories. The Protestant Church is the Church of the ‘Scripture Principle,’ the Church of a radical theology of the Word. God delimits history with His history for the world in the resurrection of Jesus Christ. It is purely ad hoc and presumptuous to presume that God only spoke in Protestantly orthodox ways in 16th and 17th C Western Europe, but this is what the Dr would have us to believe. Repristination of the type that Cooper is engaging in is really just an archeological dig in search of Christian artifacts that may have blessed some of our brothers and sisters back then, but God has continued to speak to His Church beyond that; and He does that as we meet Him afresh anew in the pages of Holy Scripture. Protestant orthodoxy of Cooper’s type represents a new Romish-like magisterium. But I’m Protestant!

2 thoughts on “A Query with Reference to Dr Jordan Cooper and His Scholasticism”

  1. Indeed!… although God spoke long ago in many portions and in many ways, to the fathers by the prophets, in these last days he has spoken to us by a Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, through whom also he made the world, who is the radiance of his glory and the representation of his essence, sustaining all things by the word of power.

    This Son, born into a particular time and of particular circumstances nevertheless speaks continually throughout and into the ages, with an eternal message and will. While…”the times they are a changing”… the Son is altogether the same, and his years will not run out.

  2. Richard, yes. Cooper needs to remember that God is a speaking God, and that God still speaks with His ineffable capacity of speech.

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